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Old 14-09-2017, 12:40 AM
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Have my bungalow up for sale at 250,000 and an elderly couple have immediately offered to buy it. They have offered me 180,000 now and the balance upon the sale of their property which they have just put on the market for 160,000.

The 180,000 is enough for me to buy my house abroad but I am concerned over the legalities of the outstanding balance. Do I still technically own the bungalow and if so do I have any financial liabilities with it still or do the deeds simply remain in my name until the debt is settled and they can move in ??

I presume this kind of thing is not too unusual so would appreciate any help or advice.
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